Worth 41% of the PMI PMP (PMP) exam. CertClue has 223 questions on this objective.
EVM formula questions are some of the most reliably scored items on the exam if you know exactly what each formula measures and what a result above or below the neutral point means.
Exam tip. On formula questions, write out PV, EV, and AC for the scenario first, then plug into the formula; do not try to recall the answer from memory alone since a single wrong sign flips the interpretation.
Procurement questions often hinge on knowing which party bears the most risk under a given contract type, since that risk allocation is the entire reason different contract types exist.
Exam tip. When scope is well defined, expect fixed price contracts; when scope is uncertain or the work is exploratory, expect cost-reimbursable; T&M fills small, short-duration gaps.
Threats and opportunities are two sides of the same risk coin, and PMI expects you to know that each threat strategy has a mirrored opportunity strategy, with accept being the one strategy both sides share.
Exam tip. Accept is the only response strategy common to both threats and opportunities; every other strategy has a distinct threat version and opportunity version that mirror each other.
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1. The Orbit Health development team automates its build, test, and deployment pipeline so that every approved code change can be released to production quickly and reliably, reducing batch size and integration risk. From a project management perspective, what is the primary benefit of this continuous delivery practice?
Continuous delivery reduces batch size and automates the release pipeline, which lowers the risk and cost associated with large, infrequent releases while enabling faster feedback loops, matching the described benefit. Option A overstates what pipeline automation does: shifting some testing earlier in the pipeline is a real practice, but it does not remove the ongoing need for manual testing on higher-risk changes. Option B overstates the reliability effect of the practice; smaller, more frequent releases lower risk, but they do not remove the need to keep monitoring production for defects. Option C confuses a technical delivery practice with a separate project management activity: automating releases does not update or replace the schedule baseline, which the project manager still maintains and reports against.
2. An organization states that it is generally willing to pursue projects with schedule uncertainty, but it will not accept any project with more than a 15 percent chance of missing a regulatory deadline. Which two concepts are being described, in order?
The organization's general willingness to pursue schedule uncertainty describes its risk appetite, a broad, qualitative attitude toward risk taking, while the specific 15 percent limit that cannot be exceeded describes a risk threshold, a measurable point at which risk becomes unacceptable and triggers action. Options A and D are wrong because they reverse or misplace the order; threshold is the measurable trigger point, not the general willingness described first. Option C is wrong because risk tolerance describes the acceptable range of variation around an objective, a related but different concept from the broad general willingness described in the first part of the statement.
3. During sprint execution, the product owner asks the development team to add a new feature that is not part of the current sprint backlog, insisting it is urgent. What should the team do?
Agile frameworks protect the sprint scope from disruption once a sprint has started, so the team should educate the product owner on the impact and route new, non-emergency requests through backlog refinement for proper prioritization against other work. Adding the feature immediately undermines the sprint commitment and team focus. Flatly refusing to discuss it is dismissive rather than collaborative. Unilaterally removing scope without involving the product owner bypasses the person who owns backlog prioritization.
4. A program is in early initiation and only the next few months of work are well understood, while later phases depend on decisions not yet made. Which planning technique lets the team plan near-term work in detail while leaving far-term work at a summary level until more information becomes available?
Rolling wave planning is an iterative approach where near-term work is planned in detail and future work is planned at a higher summary level until it becomes clearer. Option A describes elaborating everything simultaneously, which contradicts the wave-by-wave nature of the technique. Option B describes critical chain scheduling, which addresses resource constraints and buffers rather than the level of planning detail over time. Option D describes fast tracking, which overlaps activities to compress schedule and is unrelated to progressively detailing future work.
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